Ejemplo de preguntas         

     NOTA: El exámen se ofrece simultaneamente en Inglés y Español.     

Sample Questions (general and obgyn modalities)

The following sample questions are not provided as study materials. They are designed only to familiarize candidates with the format of the examination questions. These questions are not representative of the overall examination content or difficulty level.

Each numbered statement or question is followed by a minimum of four options. Select the ONE that is BEST.

1.       If the relative output power of an ultrasound instrument is calibrated in decibels and the operator increases the output by 20 dB, the beam intensity is increased by
A. five percent
B. two times
C. twenty times
D. one hundred times
E. one million times

2.       Assuming a fixed frequency, what happens if the diameter of an unfocused circular transducer is increased?
A. The distance to the far field is reduced
B. The beamwidth in the near field is reduced
C. The beamwidth in the far field is reduced|
D. The ultrasonic wavelength is increased
E. The sensitivity is reduced

3.       Which one of the following sets of properties of a test object or phantom is MOST relevant when assessing depth calibration accuracy?
A. Reflector spacing and reflector reflection coefficient
B. Attenuation in the medium and speed of sound in the medium
C. Reflector spacing and ultrasonic attenuation in the medium
D. Reflector reflection coefficient and ultrasonic attenuation in the medium
E. Reflector spacing and speed of sound in the medium

4.       From a safety standpoint, which one of the following methods is BEST?
A. Low transmitter output and high receiver gain
B. High transmitter output and low receiver gain
C. High near gain and low far gain
D. Low near gain and high far gain
E. High reject and high transmitter output

5.       Which one of the following instruments is a component that stores digital echo signal information?
A. Demodulator
B. Receiver
C. Video monitor
D. Logarithmic amplifier
E. Scan converter

6.       The dynamic range of the receiver of an ultrasound instrument refers to the
A. ability of the receiver to track a rapidly moving structure
B. range of echo signal frequencies that can be processed without distortion
C. speed with which the receiver recovers following the excitation pulse to the transducer
D. depth range in tissue over which moving echoes can be received
E. range of echo signal amplitudes that can be processed without distortion

7.       Which one of the following statements is TRUE about a single pulse of ultrasound from a transducer?
A. It contains a range of frequencies
B. It contains sound at the nominal frequency of the transducer only
C. It contains sound at the center frequency of the transducer only
D. The shorter the pulse the narrower the bandwidth
E. Sound energy is continuously transmitted

8.       Increasing the gain of pulse echo instruments results in higher echoes displayed in the A-mode. This is due to
A. increased amount of sound emitted by the transducer
B. increased amount of sound reflected
C. increased efficiency of transducer conversion of sound into electricity
D. increased amplification in the receiver
E. decreased amplification in the receiver

9.       A sound wave leaves its source and travels through air. The speed of sound in air is 330 m/sec. One second later, an echo returns to the source. At what distance from the source is the reflector that produced the echo?
A. 1540 meters
B. 770 meters
C. 660 meters
D. 330 meters
E. 165 meters

10.    In the patient with a hydrocele, the fluid is located between the
A. tunica albuginea and tunica vaginalis
B. testicle and tunica albuginea
C. two layers of the tunica vaginalis
D. testicle and epidymis

11.    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of fatty infiltration of the liver?
A. Focal areas of decreased echogenicity (sparing)
B. Decreased attenuation of sound
C. Increased echogenicity
D. Poor visualization of the diaphragm

12.    The vessel that lies superior to the body of the pancreas is the
A. hepatic artery
B. splenic vein
C. gastroduodenal artery
D. splenic artery

13.    A patient with a Klatskin’s tumor would have dilatation of the
A. gallbladder
B. extrahepatic ducts only
C. intrahepatic and extrahepatic ducts
D. intrahepatic ducts only

14.    A male patient with an elevated alpha feto protein (AFP) should be evaluated for the presence of:
A. pancreatic carcinoma
B. hepatocellular carcinoma
C. transitional cell carcinoma
D. lymphoma

15.    In order to obtain an optimal image of the right kidney in an adult, the sonographer should
A. use a 5.0 MHZ frequency transducer
B. scan through the patient’s back
C. use the liver for a window
D. use a linear array transducer

16.    A patient with a left atrial myxoma may have symptoms similar to those patients having
A. mitral stenosis
B. mitral ring calcification
C. flail mitral leaflet
D. papillary muscle dysfunction

17.    The best position for recording the left ventricular filling wave forms by two-dimensional/pulsed Doppler echocardiography is
A. parasternal short-axis with the Doppler sample volume positioned at the mitral valve leaflet tips
B. parasternal long-axis with the sample volume positioned in the left atrium
C. apical four-chamber with the sample volume positioned at mitral valve leaflet tips
D. apical four-chamber with the sample volume positioned in the left atrium
E. apical five-chamber with the sample volume in the left ventricular inflow tract

18.    Visualization of the lateral segment of the left ventricle is best when the sonographer uses which of the following views?
A. Subxiphoid four-chamber view
B. Apical long-axis view
C. Parasternal long-axis view
D. Apical four-chamber and parasternal short-axis views
E. Apical long-axis and parasternal long-axis views

19.    In long standing aortic stenosis, the MOST common secondary echocardiographic finding would be
A. left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH)
B. left ventricular (LV) dilation
C. mitral ring calcification
D. diastolic aortic flutter

20.    When Amyl Nitrite is administered to a patient who has hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM), it is likely to
A. decrease septal thickening
B. increase the systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve
C. decrease systolic flow velocity in the left ventricular outflow tract
D. increase pulmonary venous return
E. produce a slower heart rate

21.    Which one of the following statements is NOT true about aneurysms of the left ventricle as seen by two-dimensional echocardiography?
A. Aneurysms have thin walls
B. The size of an aneurysm decreases systole
C. The apex of the left ventricle is usually involved
D. A thrombus is frequent present
E. Multiple views are needed for complete assessment

22.    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a simple cyst?
A. round or oval
B. anechoic
C. thin edge shadows
D. isoechoic

23.    On a mammogram, which of the following structures is NOT seen as a water density?
A. cyst
B. fibroadenoma
C. fat lobule
D. carcinoma

24.    The majority of breast cancers arise from what structure?
A. cyst
B. terminal duct lobular unit
C. fat lobule
D.Cooper’s ligament

25.    The most common cause of bloody nipple discharge is?
A. cyst
B. papilloma
C. hamartoma
D. fibroadenoma

26.    All of the following are benign sonographic characteristics EXCEPT?
A. thin echogenic pseudocapsule
B. taller than wide
C. well circumscribed
D.purely hyperechoic

27.    The most common primary cancer to metastasize to the breast is
A. melanoma
B. osteosarcoma
C. cervical
D. colon

28.    In a patient with a grade IV/VI systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur, the MOST likely pathology is
A. mitral stenosis
B. mitral regurgitation
C. aortic stenosis
D. aortic regurgitation
E. tricuspid regurgitation

29.    When ultrasound waves travel through a medium which contains many small scatterers (e.g. red blood cells), the amount of sound that is scattered would
A. increase sharply with increasing frequency
B. increase sharply with increasing wavelength
C. be independent of frequency
D. decrease with increasing beam area
E. decrease sharply with increasing frequency

30.    With phased array transducers, the transmitted sound beam is swept by
A. mechanically oscillating the transducer elements
B. mechanically rotating the transducer elements
C. varying the timing of pulses to the transducer elements
D. varying the voltage of pulses to the transducer elements
E. varying the resonant frequency of the transducer elements

31.    In a normal individual, during isovolumetric contraction, the
A. aortic valve opens allowing blood to be ejected from the left ventricle
B. mitral valve is open allowing blood flow into the left ventricle
C. pressure in the left ventricle increases; no valves are open
D. pressure in the left ventricle decreases; no valves are open
E. pressure in the left ventricle is the same as it is in end diastole; no valves are open

32.    Myocardial blood flow is most predominant during which phase of the cardiac cycle?
A. Isovolumic relaxation phase
B. Systole
C. Isovolumic contraction
D. Diastole

33.    Myocardial blood flow in the normal heart returns to the right atrium via the
A. pulmonary veins
B. azygos veins
C. superior vein cava
D. coronary sinus

34.    The congenital cardiac defect with the highest recurrence rate is:
A. Atrial Septal Defect
B. Ventricular Septal Defect
C. Atrioventricular Septal Defect
D. Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
E. Right Ventricular Hypoplasia

35.    Right Atrial Isomerism is associated with congenital heart disease in what percentage of cases?
A. 51-60%
B. 61-70%
C. 71-80%
D. 81-90%
E. 91-100%

36.    A defect thought to be the result of abnormal intracardiac bloodflow is:
A. Tetralogy of Fallot
B. Truncus Arterosis
C. Ebstein Anomaly
D. Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
E. Atrioventricular Septal Defect

37.    All of the following are indications for performing a fetal echocardiogram EXCEPT:
A .Echogenic Focus
B. Increased Nuchal Thickness
C. Family History of Congenital Heart Disease
D. Exposure to Teratogens
E. Fetal Hydrops

38.    The moderator band is located in which structure:
A. Left Atrium
B. Left Ventricle
C. Right Atrium
D. Right Ventricle

39.    Ectopia cordis is commonly associated with:
A. Down Syndrome
B. Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
C. Pentalogy of Cantrell
D. Friederich ataxia
E. Neurofibromatosis

40.    Which of the following has the highest association with Ebstein Anomaly?
A. Pulmonary stenosis
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Ventricular Septal Defect
D. Atrial Septal Defect
E. Corrected Transposition of the Great Vessels

41.    Which of the follow cardiac valves has two leaflets?
A. Aortic valve
B. Mitral valve
C. Pulmonic valve
D. Tricuspid valve
E. Eustatian valve

42.    The most common location for an atrial septal defect is:
A. Sinus Venosus
B. Coronary Sinus
C. Ostium Primum
D. Ostium Secundum
E. Right Atrial Appendage

43.    All of the following fetal echocardiographic views would be appropriate to assess the response of the atria and ventricles to a dysrhythmia, EXCEPT:
A. Apical four-chamber view
B. Sub-costal four-chamber view
C. Short axis view of the ventricles
D. Short axis view of the great vessels
E. Long axis view of the aorta

44.    The shape of each ventricular cavity is in part determined by the brain structures that border the walls of the cavity. Each lateral ventricle in the frontal horn and body region exhibits a concavity on its inferolateral border, created by
A. parts of the caudate nucleus
B. parts of the putamen
C. parts of the thalamus
D. the choroid plexus
E. the corpus callosum

45.    Which one of the following is least likely to be detected by sonography?
A. Germinal matrix hemorrhage
B. Periventricular hemorrhage
C. A small amount of intraventricular blood
D. Intraventricular clot
E. Intraparenchymal extension of a germinal matrix hemorrhage

46.    In choosing an intraoperative transducer the choice is always
A. the highest spatial resolution
B. the best penetration
C. a balance between spatial resolution and penetration
D. a balance between penetration and energy output in mw/cm2

47.    Excluding consideration of bioeffects, which one of the following is the major advantage of ultrasound over CT for evaluation of the neonatal brain?
A. Resolution
B. Portability
C. Cost of initial instrument acquisition
D. Cost of instrument operation
E. Control of infection

48.    In its passage from its formation to its site of absorption, the cerebrospinal fluid passes through a long narrow tube which is easily obstructed. This part of the ventricular system is the
A. foramen of Monro
B. aqueduct of Sylvius
C. foramen of Magendie
D. cisterna magna
E. cisterna interpeduncularis

49.    The major site of production of cerebrospinal fluid is the
A. arachnoid granulations
B. subarachnoid space
C. ependyma of the ventricular system
D. pia mater
E. choroid plexus

50.    Postmenopausal ovaries are difficult to recognize sonographically for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
A. they are no longer responsive to pituitary gonadotrophins
B. they are smaller than premenopausal ovaries
C. the parenchymal tissue becomes hypoechoic due to atrophy
D. the blood supply to the ovaries is diminished
E. folliculogenesis within the ovary increases

51.    In the twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome, abnormalities in fetal growth and development can occur. These changes are represented by which of the following?
A. Both fetuses showing evidence of symmetric intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR)
B. Both fetuses showing evidence of macrosomia
C. Evidence of IUGR in one fetus
D. Evidence of asymmetrical IUGR in both fetuses
E. Polyhydramnios seen in both sacs

52.    Anencephaly may be associated with all of the following EXCEPT
A. polyhydramnios
B. elevated alpha fetoprotein
C. duodenal atresia
D. spina bifida
E. meningomyelocele

53.    In a nonstimulated cycle, the maximum normal size of the dominant follicle prior to ovulation is
A. 5 mm
B. 15 mm
C. 25 mm
D. 35 mm
E. 45 mm

54.    Higher than normal levels of chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) are seen in which of the following conditions?
A. Multiple gestation
B. Corpus luteum cyst
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Anembryonic gestation

55.    A prominent eustachian valve is seen in the right atrium. The eustachian valve is
A. a normal valve of the inferior vena cava commonly seen in the subcostal view
B. a normal valve of the coronary sinus seen in a parasternal short-axis
C. the portion of the atrial septum which is patent before birth and did not fuse after delivery
D. a term which can be applied to the tricuspid valve
E. a normal valve of the superior vena cava commonly seen in the subcostal view

56.    The right ventricular systolic pressure may be predicted
A. when the pulmonary artery pressure is low by precise correlation of pulmonary valve closure times
B. by accurate measurement of end systolic and end diastolic anterior right ventricular wall thickness
C. with continuous wave Doppler measurement of peak tricuspid regurgitation velocity
D. with pulsed Doppler interrogation of the main pulmonary artery

57.    Which one of the following is NOT a frequent echocardiography finding in a patient who has hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
A. Asymmetric septal hypertrophy
B. Mitral prolapse
C. Midsystolic closure of the aortic valve
D. Systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve
E. Mitral insufficiency

58.    Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with overriding of the aorta?
A. Pulmonary atresia with a ventricular septal defect (pseudotruncus)
B. Tetralogy of Fallot
C. Pulmonary atresia with intact ventricular septum
D. Truncus arteriosus

59.    The echocardiographic study of a 5-year-old boy has shown an isolated midmuscular VSD. Continuous-wave Doppler reflects a 4 m/sec drop across the defect. Simultaneous blood pressure is 90/70 mmHg. The right ventricular systolic pressure can be estimated as
A. 26 mmHg
B. 36 mmHg
C. 64 mmHg
D. 90 mmHg
E. 154 mmHg

60.    This video segment is from a cyanotic neonate. Direct your attention to the great vessels and ventricles. The anterior great vessel is
A. aorta
B. pulmonary artery
C. ductus arteriosus
D. atretic

61.    The ventricles and great vessels show
A. atrioventricular concordance
B. atrioventricular discordance
C. ventriculoarterial concordance
D. ventriculoarterial discordance

62.    Which of the following statements about spectral broadening of Doppler waveforms is TRUE?
A. Increased spectral broadening is defined as a narrower band of frequencies.
B. Spectral broadening is useful in grading the degree of turbulence at an arterial stenosis.
C. Increased spectral broadening indicates laminar flow within the Doppler sample volume.
D. A larger pulsed Doppler sample volume generally results in less spectral broadening.

63.    Subclavian steal is characterized by which of the following?
A. To and fro signal in the ipsilateral external carotid artery.
B. Velocity elevation in the ipsilateral subclavian artery distal to the clavicle.
C. Biphasic flow in the contralateral common carotid artery.
D. Retrograde flow in the ipsilateral vertebral artery.
E. Retrograde flow in the contralateral subclavian artery.

64.    In a Duplex scan evaluation of a patient suspected clinically of having lower extremity deep venous thrombosis (DVT):
A. Acute DVT is recognized by the presence of valvular reflux.
B. Extensive collateral veins suggest acute DVT.
C. Acute DVT contains thrombus with a high echo density on B-mode imaging.
D. An acutely thrombosed vein is larger than its accompanying artery.

65.    What is the effect of exercise on the calf blood flow (cm3/min.) in a patient with isolated superficial femoral artery stenosis and mild claudication?
A. Decreases by approximately 50%.
B. Decreases in direct proportion to the ankle/brachial index.
C. Does not change.
D. Increases, although less than in a normal limb.

66.    In which of the following conditions is the renal to aortic ratio NOT accurate?
A. When the peak systolic velocity in the perirenal aorta is between 70 and 90 cm/s.
B. When the peak systolic velocity in the perirenal aorta is less than 35 cm/s.
C. When the ipsilateral renal artery peak systolic velocity is greater than 500 cm/s.
D. When the contralateral renal artery is occluded.

67.    During noninvasive surveillance of an in-situ femoral-tibial bypass graft, the most important finding suggestive of a stenosis is:
A. Color aliasing.
B. An abnormal ankle-brachial index.
C. Increased peak systolic velocity.
D. Irregular wall on B mode imaging.
E. An associated residual valve remnant.

68.    Which of the following is a potential adverse bioeffect of medical ultrasound?
A. Refraction.
B. Cavitation.
C. Positron emission.
D. Reverberation.

69.    Which one of the following factors does NOT affect the frequency of the Doppler shift?
A. Size of the Doppler probe
B. Angle with which the probe is pointed at the vessel
C. Velocity of the blood in the vessel
D. Speed of ultrasound in tissue
E. Transmitting frequency of the Doppler

70.    A blood pressure cuff (wider than the thigh) is applied above the knee. A Doppler probe is then applied over the posterior tibial artery at the ankle. The cuff is inflated above the systolic pressure and slowly deflated. What does the pressure in the cuff represent at the time that the first pulse is detected by the Doppler?
A. Systolic pressure at the ankle
B. Mean pressure at the ankle
C. Diastolic pressure in the popliteal artery
D. Systolic pressure in the artery(ies) underlying the cuff
E. Systolic pressure of the common femoral artery above the cuff

71.    Lateral resolution is determined mainly by
A. reflector size
B. beam diameter
C. pulse duration
D. band width
E. the TV monitor

72.    In photoplethysmography, a change in blood volume is detected by light
A. color
B. refraction
C. frequency shift
D. reflection
E. penetration

73.    When a 5 MHz Doppler instrument with a pulse repetition frequency of 15 kHz is used, "aliasing" will begin to occur at which frequency?
A. 3 kHz
B. 5 kHz
C. 8 kHz
D. 15 kHz
E. 30 kHz

74.    Which one of the following is measured by a venous outflow study?
A. Rate of venous emptying
B. Venous vascular incompetence
C. Calf vein obstruction
D. Limb perfusion
E. Perforator incompetence

75.    Which one of the following results in an increase in acoustic exposure to the patient?
A. Application of reject
B. Increase in the swept gain slope rate
C. Increase in the television monitor brightness
D. Increase in the examination time
E. Increase in the overall gain

76.    A complete venous duplex exam should include
A. venous compression and Doppler evaluation
B. venous compression and color evaluation
C. color and Doppler evaluation
D. sampling of pedal arterial signals

77.    Venous hypertension MOST often results from
A. systolic hypertension
B. calcified vessels
C. deep venous reflux
D. compression stockings

78.    In a non-diseased extremity, listening to the popliteal artery with a Doppler velocity detector and inflating a cuff on the thigh, the observer is measuring the pressure in which one of the following arteries?
A. Common femoral artery
B. Superficial femoral artery
C. Iliac artery
D. Profunda femoris artery
E. Popliteal artery

79.    A short venous refilling time (20 secs) detected by photoplethysmography results most commonly from
A. superficial venous thrombosis
B. deep venous obstruction
C. venous reflux
D. proximal arterial disease
E. vasoconstriction

80.    A patient presents with 1/2 block bilateral calf and thigh claudication. Ankle brachial indices are 0.90 on the right and 0.86 on the left. Which of the following should be recommended?
A. Arteriography
B. Exercise stress testing
C. Referral to orthopedics
D. No further work up